Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 15:03
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
How do you handle your mother-in-law after you heard her talking badly about you in the next room?
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Do you as a gay male enjoy the feeling of getting a penis in your anus?
You'll usually find your answer there.